I would like to suggest that there are two aspects of Kant that are in parallel with aristotle and another that is parallel with Plato. for Kant divides metaphysics into two parts. one that area that deals with the universe as a whole and the other is that which deals with individual things [all individual things] in the universe. to the part that deals with individual things Kant has proven that synthetic a priori knowledge is possible and that the twelve categories apply to them. [when where how why etc.] these a priori categories are also what were known in the Middle Ages as universals. [a example is whiteness.] the nature of universals is a debate between aristotle and Plato. to Plato they do not depend on individuals and to aristotle they do depend on individuals. [does the existence of whiteness depend on individual white things or could it exist even without anything being white. thus, in the area of "ta anta" (being things) a priori knowledge is possible as Kant proves. but in the area of being in itself knowledge according to Kant cannot exist. but Leonard nelson and Kelley ross show that even in areas that deal with the universe as a whole knowledge is possible but it is not based on sensory perception nor on the faculty of reason which begins with axioms. it has to begin with a kind of knowledge that Socrates discovered when he interrogated a slave boy and but simple questions were able to show that the slave boy know geometry even though he did not know that he knew geometry. thus, there is knowledge that we know but we do not know that we know it. this is non intuitive immediate knowledge and it is the way we might e able to come up with axioms that can begin the process of reasoning. but theses axioms can neve proven to be correct but they can be disproven by the process defined by Karl popper of falsification.]