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29.4.23

Bava Metzia end of Hamafkid page 43 side a

 If one  hands over to another  coins that are not tied up, then he can use them. If they are robbed then to Rav Huna he has to pay them back. To Rav Nahman he does not have to since he is in the category of a paid guard who is not obligated to pay back in case of robbery, [But in case they were lost or stolen then he would have to pay.] Rav Nahman asks on Rav Huna from a teaching" If a gizbar [a person in charge of the money of the Temple] hands loose coins to a money changer and the money changer uses that money then the Gizbar is guilty of meila] [using money that was dedicated to the Temple for private use]. To Rav Huna he should be guilty even if the money changer did not use the money. My question here is that acquiring of a paid guard or a borrower  is by picking up. Not by usage. But to be guilty of meila does require use. so the same question applies to Rav Nahman. changing domain and acquiring of the money as a loan or as a paid guard happens before usage. But if you want to say that anyway, there is no meila until usage, then to both Rav Nahman and Rav Huna cases there should not be meila until it is used and in any case it not clear why the gizbar is guilty of meila when the money changer uses the money. He should be guilty right away.

 I was at the sea again and on the way back it occurred to me how one  might answer the question I asked yesterday night. I think Rav Nahman must be understanding Rav Huna to mean that the money is considered a loan,  not as a borrowing of an object where the object is considered as belonging to the original owner. That it unlike a loan where the money belong to the borrower but he has to pay back that same amount. so both Rav Nahman and Rav Huna are understanding that for there to be meila there has to be change of ownership or  usage. This is like Rav Huna in Bava Metzia page 99 Rav Huna said one who borrows an ax, if he chopped with it he transgress and if not then not. so now the question of Rav Nahman makes sense. If the money that was handed to the money changer was a loan then if the money changer doe not use it, still since it is a loan the gizbar should transgress the prohibition of meila right away 

I would like to mention that this is also how Rav  Shach  understands the question of Rav Nahman on Rav Huna in Laws of Robbery and Loss chapter 13 halacha 17



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 If one  hands over to another coins that are not tied up, then he can use them. If they are robbed then to רב הונא he has to pay them back. To רב נחמן he does not have to since he is in the category of a paid guard who is not obligated to pay back in case of גזילה, [But in case they were lost or גנבה then he would have to pay.] רב נחמן asks on רב הונא from a teaching" If a גזבר [a person in charge of the money of the Temple] hands loose coins to a money changer  (שולחני), and the money changer uses that money then the גזבר is guilty of מעילה. To רב הונא he should be guilty even if the money changer did not use the money. My question here is that acquiring of a paid guard or a borrower  is by picking up. Not by usage. But to be guilty of מעילה does require use. so the same question applies to  רב נחמן. changing domain and acquiring of the money as a loan or as a paid guard happens before usage. But if you want to say that anyway, there is no מעילה until usage, then to both  רב נחמן and רב הונא cases there should not be מעילה until it is used and in any case it not clear why the גזבר is guilty of מעילה when the money changer uses the money. He should be guilty right away.

 It occurred to me how one  might answer the question. I think רב נחמן must be understanding Rav Huna to mean that the money is considered a loan,  not as a borrowing of an object where the object is considered as belonging to the original owner. That it unlike a loan where the money belong to the borrower but he has to pay back that same amount. so both רב נחמן and רב הונא are understanding that for there to be מעילה there has to be change of ownership or  usage. This is like רב הונא in בבא מציעא צ''ט רב הונא said one who borrow an ax, if he chopped with it, he transgress מעילה and if not then not. so now the question of רב נחמן makes sense. If the money that was handed to the money changer שלחני was a loan then if the money changer אינו משתמש , still since it is a loan the גזבר should transgress the prohibition of מעילה right away 




אם אחד מוסר לאחר מטבעות שאינם קשורים, אז הוא יכול להשתמש בהם. אם הם נשדדו אז לרב הונא הוא צריך לשלם. לרב נחמן אינו חייב כיון שהוא בקטגוריה של שומר בתשלום שאינו חייב להחזיר במקרה של גזלה, [אבל במקרה שאבדו או גנבו אז יצטרך לשלם.] רב נחמן שואל על רב הונא מהוראה: אם גזבר [אחראי על כספי המקדש] מוסר מטבעות לחלפן (שולחני), והחלפן משתמש בכסף זה אז הגזבר אשם במעילה. לרב הונא הוא צריך להיות אשם גם אם חלפן הכספים לא השתמש בכסף. השאלה שלי כאן היא שקניין שומר שכר או לווה היא על ידי הגבה, לא על ידי שימוש. אבל כדי להיות אשם במעילה כן דורש שימוש. אז אותה שאלה חלה על רב נחמן. שינוי רשות ורכישת הכסף כהלוואה או כשומר שכר קורה לפני השימוש. אבל אם אתה רוצה להגיד בכל מקרה אין מעילה עד השימוש, אז גם לרב נחמן וגם לרב הונא אין מעילה עד שנעשה שימוש. ובכל מקרה לא ברור למה הגזבר אשם במעילה רק כשהחלפן משתמש בכסף. הגזבר צריך להיות אשם מיד

עלה בדעתי איך אפשר לענות על השאלה. אני חושב שרב נחמן חייב להבין את רב הונא בכך שהכסף נחשב כהלוואה, לא כהשאלה של חפץ שבו החפץ נחשב כשייך לבעלים המקורי. שזה לא כמו הלוואה שבה הכסף שייך ללווה אבל הוא צריך להחזיר את אותו הסכום. אז גם רב נחמן וגם רב הונא מבינים שכדי שתהיה מעילה צריך להיות שינוי בעלות או שימוש. זה כמו רב הונא בבא מציעא צ''ט רב הונא אמר השואל גרזן, אם בקע בו, עובר על מעילה, ואם לאו אז לא. אז עכשיו השאלה של רב נחמן הגיונית. אם הכסף שנמסר לחלפן (שלחני) היה הלוואה, אז אם החלפן אינו משתמש אתו , עדיין מכיוון שמדובר בהלוואה, הגזבר צריך לעבור על איסור מעילה מיד


28.4.23

 It is  useful to clarify thinkers in terms of enlightenment thinkers as opposed to anti enlightenment. This is more useful than empirical as opposed to rational. And then, even enlightenment  thinkers can also be classified in how much or little does faith have its place, and also in terms of the place of the state.  


That goes for thinkers in philosophy. But since the advent of the Frankfurt school and post modernism, it even more useful to classify  thinkers in term of America or anti America, [Freedom, Individual rights private property, the Rule of Reason, capitalism].

There is a lot to unpack here and I doubt if I can do justice to these gigantic subjects. I might mention here that John Locke and Hobhouse (The Metaphysical State) are two significant figures.

In the meantime, I might mention that the Middle Ages did provide a sort of synthesis between faith and reason to make an opening for a John Locke kind of Democracy.  

There is a bridge from Aristotle to John Locke. Too much of the religious world is directed against freedom, individual rights and pure reason. Too much of the academic world is against faith. There is a middle way.[In particular, the academic world nowadays is in direct antagonism towards Christianity.]



26.4.23

 a problem in Enlightenment philosophy is that "education" per se is good for everyone. And along with that came the assumption that education can lift up all mankind.

The problem is education in what?

If the idea was education in Torah Physics and Mathematics, then I would have to agree. But that i not how that idea was applied. Now it can mean in the most ridiculous things. Or it might mean education in law--so you get not noble people, but vicious people with a law degree. Or it might mean queer studies


but then you might ask why should people that are not talented in Math be educated in math? To that I answer that in the hard sciences there is a commandment to learn. It i included in the commandment to learn Torah as we see in Rambam chapter 3 of laws of learning Torah that learning the subject called "pardes" as he defined them in the first four chapters are in the category of learning Gemara

25.4.23

 The mediaeval idea of combining faith and reason got accepted to a large degree by the Litvak world. This came about because of the emphasis of Rav Israel Salanter of learning Musar, and musar is started with the Chovot Levavot and Saadia Gaon. Both were firmly in the Reason and faith camp.

But with the advent of the Enlightenment this approach took a beating. At that point you get enlightenment philosophers and anti enlightenment philosophers.  And the anti enlightenment ones are going with emotion, not faith. 

To answer modern day problems, I think we still need the Reason with Faith approach. 

23.4.23

 the significance of noting some of the problems in Kant and Hegel is that a good deal of the attack on the  John Lockean and enlightenment sort of democracy stems from these two philosophers. ''Woke'' is Marx with blacks and pedophiles being substituted for the working class.  

take a look at this paper from Brian Caplan which throws a wrench into all German philosophy after Kant --sine it demolishes the entire foundation of Kantian and Hegelian Philosophy in a few simple paragraphs 

 
 
 
An Enquiry Concerning Hume's Misunderstanding 
 
 
	Bryan Caplan 
	Tu 3-4 
	Phil 122 
	Question #1 

1. Introduction 
Remarkably, it is possible to sum up David Hume's vital  
assumptions about reasoning in a single proposition: Reason does  
NOTHING except locate the presence or absence of contradictions.   
This paper will attempt three tasks: first, to show the textual  
support for my interpretation; second, to explain how Hume's  
skepticism about induction depends on this assumption; and third, to  
briefly argue that Hume's basic assumption is wrong. 

2. Textual Support 

Whenever Hume wants to show that reasoning cannot support  
something, he uses the same argument: the alternative is not a  
contradiction.  "The contrary of every matter of fact is still  
possible; because it can never imply a contradiction, and is  
conceived by the mind with the same facility and distinctness, as if  
ever so conformable to reality.  We should in vain, therefore,  
attempt to demonstrate its falsehood.  Were it demonstratively  
false, it would imply a contradiction, and could never be distinctly  
conceived by the mind."1  Suppose that we try to use reason to  
establish any matter of fact.  Hume says that our effort is futile,  
because the alternative is conceivable.  But if the alternative is  
conceivable, then it is not a contradiction, because contradictions  
are inconceivable.  But reason can refute something only if it is a  
contradiction.  Hence, reason can never establish any matter of fact. 
Hume liberally repeats this argument throughout his works on  
epistemology.  When he denies that reason justifies the law of  
cause-and-effect, he says, "That there are no demonstrative  
arguments in this case, seems evident; since it implies no  
contradiction, that the course of nature may change."2  The  
argument is the same as above: An alternative is conceivable;  
contradictions are not conceivable; and reason can only demonstrate  
that something is false if it is a contradiction.  Hence, reason cannot  
establish the law of cause-and-effect. 

Hume uses the same argument in A Treatise of Human Nature.   
"There is no object, which implies the existence of any other if we  
consider the objects in themselves.  Such an inference wou'd amount  
to knowledge, and wou'd imply the absolute contradiction and  
impossibility of conceiving any thing different."3  Once again, Hume  
notes that he can conceive of one object without a second object.   
Since no contradictions are conceivable, this is not a contradiction.   
And since reason does nothing but locate the presence or absence of  
contradictions, reason cannot establish a connection between any  
two things.  Later in the Treatise, Hume makes the argument still  
more explicit: "To form a clear idea of any thing, is an undeniable  
argument for its possibility, and is alone a refutation of any  
pretended demonstration against it."4  Conceivability implies the  
absence of a contradiction, and the absence of a contradiction  
implies that reason has nothing to say on the matter. 

To cement my interpretation, let us turn to Hume's Abstract of  
a Treatise of Human Nature, where he repeats the argument.  "The  
mind can always conceive any effect to follow from any cause, and  
indeed any event to follow upon another: whatever we conceive is  
possible, at least in a metaphysical sense: but wherever a  
demonstration takes place, the contrary is impossible, and implies a  
contradiction.  There is no demonstration, therefore, for any  
conjunction of cause and effect."5  As always, his argument flows  
from the conceivability of an alternative, to the absence of a  
contradiction, to the forced silence of reason on the question.  "What  
is demonstratively false implies a contradiction; and what implies a  
contradiction cannot be conceived."6 

Hume could hardly be more explicit.  In all three works, he uses  
precisely the same argument.  And this argument rests on a crucial  
assumption about reason and reasoning: namely, that reason does  
nothing except locate the presence or absence of contradictions.   
While Hume may be open to interpretation on some points, the  
textual support for my claim is quite solid: it spans at least three of  
his epistemological works, and appears repeatedly in each.  The next  
section explains in detail why this assumption about reasoning  
matters. 

3. The Crucial Assumption
 
Let us formally state the argument that Hume uses above in  
order to see why his assumption crucially supports his view that we  
never have any reason to believe any matter of fact. 

1. The alternative to any matter of fact is conceivable. 

2. If something is conceivable, then it is not a contradiction. 

3. Reason does nothing except locate the presence or absence  
of contradictions. 

Therefore, reason has nothing to say about any matter of fact;  
if a proposition concerns matters of fact, reason can neither support  
nor refute it. 

It is hard to doubt premises #1 and #2.  We can indeed  
conceive of alternatives to any matter of fact.  And it seems like a  
basic feature of a contradiction that it is inconceivable.  (Try to  
conceive of a circular square.  Now try to conceive that gremlins  
exist.  Notice the difference?)  Premise #3 is therefore the crucial  
step in the argument -- and Hume's most central assumption about  
reasoning. 

How does the above argument relate to Hume's argument that  
we never have any reason to believe any unobserved matter of fact?   
I shall briefly but formally state Hume's argument against induction,  
then see how it relates to his central assumption about reasoning. 

1. All knowledge comes either from observation or reason. 

2. Knowledge of unobserved matters of fact can't come from  
reason, because the alternative to any matter of fact is conceivable  
and therefore implies no contradiction. 

3. Knowledge of unobserved matters of fact can be derived  
from knowledge of observed matters of fact only if the law of  
cause-and-effect is known. 

3a. Reason cannot establish the law of cause-and-effect,  
because the alternative is conceivable and therefore implies no  
contradiction. 

3b. Observation alone cannot establish the law of cause-and- 
effect, because this is itself an unobserved matter of fact, so the  
argument would be circular. 

Therefore, we never have any reason to believe any unobserved  
matter of fact. 

Let us now cross-examine these two formal arguments, and  
see why Hume's assumption about reason (premise#3 in the first  
argument) is crucial for his second argument to work.  Interestingly,  
it is actually used twice in the second argument - in premises#2 and  
3a.  Premise #2 claims that we cannot come to know about  
unobserved matters of fact just by reasoning about them.  Why?   
Because the contrary to every matter of fact is conceivable,  
conceivable things are not contradictions, and reason does nothing  
except locate the presence or absence of contradictions.  Premise  
#3a claims that we cannot come to know the law of cause-and- 
effect just by reasoning about it.  Why?  Because the contrary of the  
law of cause-and-effect is conceivable, conceivable things are not  
contradictions, and reason does nothing except locate the presence  
or absence of contradictions. 

So Hume's basic assumption about reasoning is absolutely  
crucial at both steps.  Suppose someone had a different theory of  
reasoning. Hume's argument would fall apart.  A critic could accept  
everything else that Hume says, but claim that reason does more  
than merely locate the presence or absence of contradictions.   
Perhaps we use reason to directly justify our beliefs about  
unobserved matters of fact.  Or perhaps we use reason to justify the  
law of cause-and-effect (major premise), coupled with our  
knowledge of observed matters of fact (minor premise), to justify  
our beliefs about unobserved matters of fact (conclusion).  In either  
case, Hume's problem of induction dissolves. 

Only if reason is as weak as Hume says would his skepticism  
about induction follow.  But Hume never proves the weakness of  
reason.  Instead, he accepts the weakness as a basic premise,  
claiming that no one denies it:  "[W]hatever we conceive is possible,  
at least in a metaphysical sense: but wherever a demonstration  
takes place, the contrary is impossible, and implies a  
contradiction.  And this is a principle, which is generally allowed by  
philosophers."7  Since his conclusions differ so radically from those  
of earlier philosophers, Hume should have considered that they might  
not accept the same conception of reason.  At the very least, he  
should have argued for his position, instead of just asserting that,  
"To form a clear idea of any thing, is an undeniable argument for its  
possibility, and is alone a refutation of any pretended demonstration  
against it."8  But is it?  Only if we accept Hume's view of reason in  
the first place, according to which reason does nothing except locate  
the presence or absence of contradictions.  How would Hume  
convince someone who didn't already agree?  I don't think that he  
could. 

4. An Alternative Conception of Reason 

Consider the claim: Circular arguments are invalid.  Think  
about it for a while.  You can see that it is true -- but how?  Even  
though Hume himself uses this principle in his argument, we could  
never justify it on his principles.  The denial is not a contradiction.   
We can at least conceive that "Some circular arguments are valid" is  
true.  But at the same time, this principle is not a mere matter of  
fact.  Once we grasp the principle, we see that it is true always and  
everywhere; moreover, we grasp it by the mere operation of thought.   
Or consider the claim: The argument ad hominem is a fallacy.  Again,  
the denial is not a contradiction; yet we grasp that it is universally  
true with the mere operation of thought. 
I think that these two claims are convincing counter- 
arguments to Hume's conception of reason.  Reason does more than  
merely discover the presence of absence of contradictions.   
Frequently, we justify necessary truths just by thinking about them;  
and sometimes, the opposite of these necessary truths is still  
conceivable and hence not a contradiction.  What is so amazing about  
this claim?  It just turns out that Hume underestimates the power  
of reason when he limits it to locating the presence or absence of  
contradictions. 

I probably won't convince anyone in so brief a presentation.   
But at least let me raise some doubts in the minds of convinced  
Humeans.  Hume claims that reason cannot justify the law of cause- 
and-effect.  I think that it plainly does.  We grasp that "Circular  
arguments are invalid" and "The argument ad hominem is false" by  
the pure operation of thought, even though their opposites are  
conceivable and hence not contradictions.  I say that we justify the  
claim "Every effect has a cause; the same cause always produces the  
same effect"  in exactly the same manner. Namely, we think about  
the claim; and if we are sufficiently intelligent, open-minded, and  
intellectually honest, we immediately see its truth. 

5. Conclusion 

Hume assumes that reasoning can do nothing except locate the  
presence or absence of contradictions.  Moreover, his argument that  
we never have any reason to believe any unobserved matter of fact  
crucially depends on this unproven assumption.  For if reason could  
do something more than locate the presence or absence of  
contradictions, we could use reason to justify our claims about  
unobserved matters of fact.  Reason might directly give us a reason  
to believe unobserved matters of fact; or, reason might give us a  
reason to believe the law of cause-and-effect, which coupled with  
immediate observations would give us a reason to believe  
unobserved matters of fact.   

I have not proved that this alternative conception of reason is  
correct.  But we should at least consider it.  Not only do the  
examples in the section four tend to support it; but it is also the  
most likely escape route from the long list of absurd conclusions  
Hume's premises imply.  No one accepts Hume's conclusions in  
practice; it is time to question his theory as well. 
 
Notes 

1: David Hume, An Enquiry Concerning Human Understanding,  
pp.15-16. 
2: ibid, p.22. 
3: David Hume, A Treatise of Human Nature, pp.86-87. 
4: ibid, p.89. 
5: David Hume, Abstract of a Treatise of Human Nature, pp.13- 
14. 
6: ibid, p.17. 
7: ibid, p.14. 
8: A Treatise of Human Nature, op. cit., p.89. 

nahman tulchiner was a student of Rav Natan who was a student of Rav Nahman of Breslov. He wrote down the talks of Rav Nathan and printed them. That became the "Collection of Halachot". He used to repeat softly to  himself under the words that Rav Nathan was saying so a to help him concentrate, [I also have found this idea to be helpful when I am listening to a lecture]

22.4.23

Berkley made some good criticisms on Aristotle's theory of perception. [see Thomas Reid.] However this question seemed to have led philosophy down a never ending rabbit hole starting with Kant. After Kant there were numerous attempts to bridge the Mind Body gap. One very good attempt  is the approach of the school of intuitionists. This seems good to me because it avoids one fallacy of Hume--that reason can only tell about contradiction based on definitions. And these critiques of Berkley and Hume formed the basis of all Philosophy subsequent to Kant. [Taking away the false assumptions of Hume, topples the whole structure of German philosophy]

The Intuitionists (Prichard, Ross, Michael Huemer) hold we have direct aware of reality, not just of what is confined between out two ears  and that reason can do more that perceive contradiction --it can know universals